Dec 24, 2023 Detailed New 101 Exam Questions for Concept Clearance [Q13-Q37]

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Dec 24, 2023 Detailed New 101 Exam Questions for Concept Clearance

101 Exam Preparation Material with New 101 Dumps Questions.

F5 101 exam is a multiple-choice exam that consists of 80 questions. Candidates are given 90 minutes to complete the exam, and a passing score of 69% or higher is required to earn the certification. 101 exam is available in multiple languages, including English, Japanese, and Korean.

Q13. Using IP Geolocation, an organization can always direct a client request from France to a data enter in Dublin.

True

False

Q14. Which of the following is not a configurable parameter data type?

Array

Binary

Decimal

Q15. A load balancing decision needs to be made based on custom a What is the most appropriate F5 feature (or this purpose?

iApps

Scale

iControl

iRules

Q16. How is persistence configured?

Persistence is an option within each pool’s definition.

Persistence is a profile type; an appropriate profile is created and associated with virtual server.

Persistence is a global setting; once enabled, load balancing choices are superceded by the persistence method that is specified.

Persistence is an option for each pool member. When a pool is defined, each member’s definition includes the option for persistence.

Q17. Learning suggestions in the Policy Building pages allow for which of the following? (Choose 2)

XML-based parameters and associated schema are automatically learned.

Blocking response pages can be automatically generated from web site content.

Flow level parameters are displayed when found and can be accepted into the current policy.

The administrator may modify whether the BIG-IP ASM System will learn, alarm, or block detected violations.

Maximum acceptable values for length violations are calculated and can be accepted into the security policy by the administrator.

Q18. Which protocol does an internet host use to request the hardware address of an IP address?

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

BOOTP

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

Q19. Which two destination pods should be used in a default active FTP Session? (Choose two)

UDP 20

TCP 20

TCP 22

TCP 21

UDP 21

https //slacksite.com/other/ftp html

Q20. Which of the following are correct regarding Wildcard entities? (Choose 2)

Wildcard entities are the basis for positive security logic.

Wildcard entities are the basis for negative security logic.

Wildcard entities require the need to learn only from violations.

Wildcard entities can be applied to file types, URLs, cookies and parameters.

Q21. The Policy Builder benefits include:

Doesn’t require in depth web application knowledge

Only requires limited ASM knowledge

All of the above

Very low administrative impact

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Q22. Basic F5 IP Geolocation provides which four types of client information?

State

Continent

Postal code

City

Carrier

Country

Explanation/Reference: State – Country – Continent – City State – Country – Postal code – City The BIG-IP system uses geolocation software to identify the geographic location of a client or web applicationuser. The default IP geolocation database provides IPv4 addresses at the continent, country, state, ISP, andorganization levels, and IPv6 addresses at the continent and country levels. The database consists of thefollowing files: F5GeoIP.dat F5GeoIPv6.dat F5GeoIPISP.dat F5GeoIPOrg.dat

Q23. Which of the following statements are correct regarding positive and negative security models? (Choose two.)

Positive security model allows all transactions by default.

Negative security model denies all transactions by default.

Negative security model allows all transactions by default and rejects only transactions that contain attacks.

Positive security mode l denies all transactions by default and uses rules that allow only those transactions that are considered safe and valid.

Q24. DRAG DROP
Place the following items in the order that the BIG-IP device uses when processing a packet.
Select and Place:

Q25. Which two of the following are costs businesses may face in dealing with unstructured data?

Lost productivity due to server downtime

Buying backup media

Buying additional storage capacity

Paying to convert unstructured data into structured data

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Q26. ASM provides antivirus protection by:

Extracting files being uploaded and sending them to an AV system via ICAP

Running a local antivirus program on the BIG-IP

None of the above

Using IP Penalty enforcement to block requests from hackers IPs

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Supported ICAP Servers in TMOS 11.5:

Q27. A GTM System would like to ensure that a given LTM System is reachable and iQuery communication is allowed prior to sending it client request. What would be the simplest monitor template to use?

TCP

ICMP

HTTP

BIGIP

SNMP

Q28. Application templates save the time it typically takes to create nodes, pools, pool members, virtual servers, and monitors.

True

False

Q29. A customer wants the best possible throughput but only has a maximum of 3RU rack space. Which F5 platform should you recommend?

BIG-IP 11050

VIPRION with only 1 performance blade

BIG-IP 8950

BIG-IP 8900

VIPRION with 4 performance blades

Explanation/Reference:

Q30. Which is NOT an ASM protectionmethod for cross site scripting?

Signatures

URl chacactsr set limiting

Token injection

Parameter character set limiting

Q31. When users are created, which three access levels can be granted through the GTM Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)

Root

Guest

Operator

Administrator

CLI + Web Read Only

Q32. Ethernet frame FCS errors occur when which calculation fails?

FSCM

CRC

CSR

HSTS

Q33. Which WOM feature replaces a long byte pattern, such as “100000111000110101”, with a shorter reference to the pattern?

Symmetric adaptive compression

Symmetric data deduplication

Bandwidth allocation

Application protocol acceleration

TCP optimization

Q34. User A and User B’s workload are on the same VLAN, but connected through a transparent layer 2 bridge in use B’s ARP table. Which MAC address is reported for user A’s workstation?

The physical port MAC address on the bridge for user A’s workstation

The MAC address of the 12 bridge

The MAC address of User A’s workstation

The physical port MAC address on the bridge for user B*s workstation

Q35. APM can verify which four of the following details before granting a user access to a resource? (Choose four.)

The user’s Web browser

The user’s computer

User’s hard drive encryption software

Groups the user is a member of

The network speed

The user’s username

Explanation/Reference:

Q36. Which four of these statements regarding object size and WebAccelerator performance are true? (Choose four.)

Large objects such as video cache well

Large objects allow fewer requests per second

Large objects result in higher throughput

Small objects result in higher throughput

Small objects such as images cache well

Small objects allow more requests per second

Explanation/Reference:

Q37. Which two statements are true concerning the default communication between a redundant pair of BIG-IP systems? (Choose two.)

Synchronization occurs via a TCP connection using ports 683 and 684.

Connection mirroring data is shared via a TCP connection using port 1028.

Persistence mirroring data is shared via a TCP connection using port 1028.

Connection mirroring data is shared through the serial failover cable unless network failover is enabled.

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F5 101 (Application Delivery Fundamentals) Certification Exam is an essential certification for professionals who want to establish themselves as experts in the field of application delivery. Application Delivery Fundamentals Exam certification exam covers the fundamental concepts and principles of application delivery, including the basics of networking, protocols, and security. The F5 101 certification exam is designed to test the candidate’s knowledge and expertise in application delivery fundamentals, including load balancing, traffic management, and high availability.

101 2023 Training With 240 QA’s: https://www.trainingquiz.com/101-practice-quiz.html

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